Current Affairs Based on "The Hindu" for RBI/IBPS Exams

Q1. Centre has sanctioned nearly how much crore to Uttar Pradesh as assistance for the recent drought situation in the state?

a) Rs. 8820 crore

b) Rs. 1020 crore

c) Rs. 620 crore

d) Rs. 2560 crore

e) Rs. 1800 crore

Q2. Name the state which has signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with NTPC and NHPC for setting up Hydro Engineering College in the state?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Punjab

c) Maharashtra

d) Odisha

e) Himachal Pradesh

Q3.  Which state goverbment has launched ‘Pashudhan Bima Yojana’ recently?

a) Bihar

b) Chhatisgarh

c) Odisha

d) Haryana

e) Assam

Q4. Andhra Pradesh's Chief Minister N Chandrababu Naidu has launched 'Mission Harita Andhra Pradesh', with the theme 'green cover for a happy living', by planting saplings at Sunkollu village under Nuzividu mandal in Krishna district. The objective of the mission is to increase the green cover in the state to 50 per cent by the year.........?

a) 2029

b) 2022

c) 2025

d) 2035

e) 2019

Q5. Name the senior IRS officer, who is set to be appointed as the new Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) Chairperson.

a) Aruna Sundarajan

b) Rani Singh Nair

c) Iqbal Ahmed Ansari

d) Shambhu Singh Yadav

e) AK Mital 

Q6. Which of the following company has announced that it has entered into a definitive agreement to acquire NetSuite, the very first cloud company?

a) Microsoft

b) Google

c) Facebook

d) Walmart

e) Oracle

Q7. Centre government has decided to organise a Make in India conference at which of the following cities in December this year (2016)?

a) Patna, Bihar

b) Kolkata, West Bengal

c) Shimla, Himachal Pradesh

d) Bhubaneswar, Odisha

e) Jaipur, Rajasthan

Q8. Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu has flagged off the maiden broad gage train service between which two stations recently?

a) Guwahati to New Delhi

b) Imphal to New Delhi

c) Agartala to New Delhi

d) Aizol to New Delhi

e) Gangtok to New Delhi

Q9. Name the country which is going to host the 2016 Kabaddi World Cup?

a) Japan

b) Canada

c) Iran

d) India

e) USA

Q10. Which state tourism has bagged six National Tourism awards for 2014-15 in the marketing category for states?

a) Kerala

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Gujarat

d) Maharashtra

e) Rajasthan

Answers:

Q1. Centre has sanctioned nearly how much crore to Uttar Pradesh as assistance for the recent drought situation in the state?

a) Rs. 8820 crore

b) Rs. 1020 crore

c) Rs. 620 crore

d) Rs. 2560 crore

e) Rs. 1800 crore
(The Central Government has also approved almost Rs. 80 crores for Rajasthan which was affected by hailstorm and Rs. 15 crores to Manipur which was affected by earthquake. A decision to this effect was taken at a meeting in the national capital chaired by Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh.)

Q2. Name the state which has signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with NTPC and NHPC for setting up Hydro Engineering College in the state?

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Punjab

c) Maharashtra

d) Odisha

e) Himachal Pradesh
(This is first of its kind joint venture in the Country. The MoU was signed in the presence of Union Health Minister Sh. J.P. Nadda, Union Minister of State (Power) Sh. Piyush Goyal and HP Transport and Technical Education Minister Sh. G.S. Bali.)

Q3.  Which state goverbment has launched ‘Pashudhan Bima Yojana’ recently?

a) Bihar

b) Chhatisgarh

c) Odisha

d) Haryana

e) Assam
(Under the ‘Pashudhan Bima Yojana’, insurance cover would be provided for cows, buffaloes, bulls, camel at a premium of Rs 100 and for sheep, goat, pig at Rs 25 for a period of three years. The insurance companies would give compensation in case of death of an animal. The scheme is free of cost for cattle breeders belonging to Scheduled Castes therefore no premium would be charged from them.)

Q4. Andhra Pradesh's Chief Minister N Chandrababu Naidu has launched 'Mission Harita Andhra Pradesh', with the theme 'green cover for a happy living', by planting saplings at Sunkollu village under Nuzividu mandal in Krishna district. The objective of the mission is to increase the green cover in the state to 50 per cent by the year.........?

a) 2029

b) 2022

c) 2025

d) 2035

e) 2019
(Interestingly, Harita Andhra Pradesh was a pet project of late chief minister Y S Rajasekhara Reddy but Chandrababu has now made it a 'mission' with a new slogan Vanam-Manam (forest and we). The objective of the mission is to increase the green cover in the state to 50 per cent by the year 2029.  Andhra currently has 23 per cent green cover (forest area) and another 3 per cent non-forest, besides 13 lakh hectares of degraded forest.) 

Q5. Name the senior IRS officer, who is set to be appointed as the new Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) Chairperson.

a) Aruna Sundarajan

b) Rani Singh Nair

c) Iqbal Ahmed Ansari

d) Shambhu Singh Yadav

e) AK Mital
(Nair has been instrumental in framing the procedures and protocols that led to the roll out of the IDS on June 1 this year that aims to fish out black funds from the domestic arena. CBDT has six members apart from the Chairperson and is responsible for framing policy and administrative issues related to direct taxes and the Income Tax department.)

Q6. Which of the following company has announced that it has entered into a definitive agreement to acquire NetSuite, the very first cloud company?

a) Microsoft

b) Google

c) Facebook

d) Walmart

e) Oracle
(The deal would help Oracle gain market share in the fast-growing cloud computing business. Oracle Database (commonly referred to as Oracle RDBMS or simply as Oracle) is an object-relational database management system produced and marketed by Oracle Corporation. Larry Ellison and his two friends and former co-workers, Bob Miner and Ed Oates, started a consultancy called Software Development Laboratories (SDL) in 1977.)

Q7. Centre government has decided to organise a Make in India conference at which of the following cities in December this year (2016)?

a) Patna, Bihar

b) Kolkata, West Bengal

c) Shimla, Himachal Pradesh

d) Bhubaneswar, Odisha

e) Jaipur, Rajasthan
(The conference would be organised by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to attract investment in the state as well as the country. The Odisha government has requested the ministry to hold the conference in the first week of December.)

Q8. Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu has flagged off the maiden broad gage train service between which two stations recently?

a) Guwahati to New Delhi

b) Imphal to New Delhi

c) Agartala to New Delhi

d) Aizol to New Delhi

e) Gangtok to New Delhi
(The ‘Tripura Sundari Express’ will run weekly between Agartala and Anand Vihar in Delhi. It will have commercial stoppages at 16 stations and cover a distance of 2461 kms in 46 hours and 50 minutes.)

Q9. Name the country which is going to host the 2016 Kabaddi World Cup.

a) Japan

b) Canada

c) Iran

d) India

e) USA
(International Kabaddi Federation has announced the selection of India for hosting "The 2016 Kabaddi World Cup". The World Cup is featuring 12 countries namely USA, Canada, UK, Australia, Iran, Poland, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Korea, Japan, Kenya, and India. The event is scheduled to be held in October 2016.)

Q10. Which state tourism has bagged six National Tourism awards for 2014-15 in the marketing category for states?

a) Kerala

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Gujarat

d) Maharashtra

e) Rajasthan
(It received two more awards, including the one for its Responsible Tourism (RT) initiative in Wayanad. Lok Sabha Speaker Sumitra Mahajan presented the awards to Principal Secretary Venu V and Director U V Jose in the presence of Union Tourism Minister Mahesh Sharma at a function at Vigyan Bhavan in New Delhi. Kerala Tourism received three out of the six awards for states in the Tourism Promotion and Publishing category, including the one for 'Most Innovative use of Information Technology' - social media/mobile app.)

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Reasoning Quiz 'word arrangement PRACTICE part- I' For SSC CGL 2016

For the first time SSC 2016 examination will be held in Computer Based pattern and managing time will be one of the important factor while solving the questions. So in order to make students familiar with such a situations we developed an New APP for SSC to providing questions in a time based manner , which will help students to manage the time properly.

►Click here to Install Our New SSC APP

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Directions (Q.1-2):In each of the following questions, find out which of the letter-series follows is the given rule.

Q1. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two

(a) MPSVYBE

(b) QSVYZCF

(c) SVZCGJN

(d) ZCGKMPR

Q2.Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order.

(a) EQZFI

(b) GWIQU

(c) MGVFK

(d) PJXHM

Directions (Q.3-5): Study the letter-series given below and answer the questions that/follow:

H D Y S M W N B Q P O C R T B L Z V E G U F

Q3. Which two neighbours in the given arrangement are farthest in the alphabetical order? 

(a) B and Q

(b) D and Y

(c) U and F

(d) V and E

Q4. Which letter has the same neighbours as in the alphabetical order though they have changed places?

(a) M

(b) N

(c) O

(d) P

Q5. Which three letters have the same distance as they have in the alphabetical order though they have changed places?

(a) HMP

(b) NQZ

(c) QOE

(d) YLE

Directions (Q.6-10): Letters of the words given below have been jumbled up. You are required to construct the words. Each letter has been numbered and each word is followed by four options. Choose the option which gives the correct order of the letters as indicated by the numbers to form words.

Q6. T I R B H G 

       1 2 3 4 5 6 

(a) 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 5 

(b) 3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1

(c) 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1

(d) 4, 5, 2, 3, 6, 1

Q7. N R O C T A 

      1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 1, 6, 2, 4, 3, 5

(b) 2, 3, 5, 4, 6, 1

(c) 4, 6, 2, 5, 3, 1

(d) 6, 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 

Q8. K A T C E L 

       1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3

(b) 3, 2, 4, 1, 6, 5

(c) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6

(d) 6, 5, 3, 2, 4, 1

Q9. R T A N U E 

       1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 1, 3, 2, 6, 4, 5

(b) 3, 2, 4, 6, 1, 5

(c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1, 6

(d) 4, 6, 5, 2, 3, 1 

Q10. N A E H L D 

         1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5

(b) 2, 6, 4, 3, 5, 1

(c) 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 3

(d) 4, 3, 6, 5, 2, 1 

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Answers:

Directions (Q.1-2):In each of the following questions, find out which of the letter-series follows is the given rule.

Q1. Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters in the series is two

(a) MPSVYBE

(b) QSVYZCF

(c) SVZCGJN

(d) ZCGKMPR

 

Q2.Number of letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order.

(a) EQZFI

(b) GWIQU

(c) MGVFK

(d) PJXHM

Directions (Q.3-5): Study the letter-series given below and answer the questions that/follow:

H D Y S M W N B Q P O C R T B L Z V E G U F

Q3. Which two neighbours in the given arrangement are farthest in the alphabetical order? 

(a) B and Q

(b) D and Y

(c) U and F

(d) V and E

Ans.(b) 

Sol. Clearly, D and Y are neighbours in the given series and are separated by the maximum number of letters i.e. 20 in the English alphabet.

Q4. Which letter has the same neighbours as in the alphabetical order though they have changed places?

(a) M

(b) N

(c) O

(d) P

Ans.(d)

Sol. P has O and Q as its neighbours in the given series as well as in the English alphabet.

Q5. Which three letters have the same distance as they have in the alphabetical order though they have changed places?

(a) HMP

(b) NQZ

(c) QOE

(d) YLE

Ans.(d) 

Sol. There are 12 letters between L and Y and 5 letters between F and L in the given series as well as in the English alphabet. 

Directions (Q.6-10): Letters of the words given below have been jumbled up. You are required to construct the words. Each letter has been numbered and each word is followed by four options. Choose the option which gives the correct order of the letters as indicated by the numbers to form words.

Q6. T I R B H G 

       1 2 3 4 5 6 

(a) 1, 3, 2, 4, 6, 5 

(b) 3, 2, 6, 5, 4, 1

(c) 4, 3, 2, 6, 5, 1

(d) 4, 5, 2, 3, 6, 1

Ans.(c) 

Sol. BRIGHT

Q7. N R O C T A 

      1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 1, 6, 2, 4, 3, 5

(b) 2, 3, 5, 4, 6, 1

(c) 4, 6, 2, 5, 3, 1

(d) 6, 5, 2, 3, 1, 4 

Ans.(c) 

Sol. CARTON

Q8. K A T C E L 

       1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 3

(b) 3, 2, 4, 1, 6, 5

(c) 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6

(d) 6, 5, 3, 2, 4, 1

Ans.(b) 

Sol. TACKLE

Q9. R T A N U E 

       1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 1, 3, 2, 6, 4, 5

(b) 3, 2, 4, 6, 1, 5

(c) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1, 6

(d) 4, 6, 5, 2, 3, 1 

Ans.(c) 

Sol. NATURE

Q10. N A E H L D 

         1 2 3 4 5 6

(a) 2, 1, 6, 4, 3, 5

(b) 2, 6, 4, 3, 5, 1

(c) 4, 2, 1, 6, 5, 3

(d) 4, 3, 6, 5, 2, 1 

Ans.(c) 

Sol. HANDLE

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Computer Quiz for IBPS Exam

Q1. If a word is typed that is not in MS Word's dictionary, a wavy underline appears below the word. What is the color of the underline that appears in this situation?

a) Blue

b) Red 

c) Green

d) Black

e) Pink

Q2. The CPU in a computer is an example of ______.

a) Hardware 

b) Software

c) Input Device

d) A program

e) An Instruction

Q3. Which of the following is not a valid memory unit?

a) ILB 

b) KB

c) YB

d) PB

e) Byte

Q4. The Internet is a system of ______.

a) Bugs

b) Interconnected networks 

c) System software

d) Operating systems

e) None of the above

Q5. Pascal is:

a) A high-level programming language

b) Named after Blaise Pascal

c) Named after mathematician that facilitates structured programming techniques 

d) All of the above

e) None of the above

Q6. Analog computers works on the supply of ___________.

a) Continuous electrical pulses

b) Input of varying voltage

c) Magnetic strength

d) Digital inputs

e) None of the above

Q7. A step by step procedure used to solve a problem is called a/an:

a) Operating system

b) None of the above

c) Application Program

d) Algorithm 

e) All of the above

Q8. Computer mouse is also known as __________.

a) Pointing Device 

b) Scanning Device

c) Sensing Device

d) Moving Device

e) All of the above

Q9. What is an Offline device?

a) A device which is not connected to CPU 

b) A device which is connected to CPU

c) A direct access storage device

d) A system software

e) All of the above

Q10. RAM is a part of _________.

a) Internet

b) Keyboard

c) System unit 

d) Monitor

e) None of the above

Answers:

Q1. If a word is typed that is not in MS Word's dictionary, a wavy underline appears below the word. What is the color of the underline that appears in this situation?

a) Blue

b) Red 

c) Green

d) Black

e) Pink
Explanation: Red underline- This indicates either a possible spelling error or that Word doesn't recognize a word, such as a proper name or place. Green underline- Word thinks that grammar should be revised. Blue underline- A word is spelled correctly but does not seem to be the correct word for the sentence.

Q2. The CPU in a computer is an example of ______.

a) Hardware 

b) Software

c) Input Device

d) A program

e) An Instruction
Explanation: Computer Hardware is the physical part of a computer, as distinguished from the computer software that executes or runs on the hardware. CPU, monitor, RAM, Firmware are examples of computer hardware.

Q3. Which of the following is not a valid memory unit?

a) ILB 

b) KB

c) YB

d) PB

e) Byte
(Here except ILB, all are valid units of memory, KB- Kilo Byte, YB- Yotta Byte, PB-Peta Byte)

Q4. The Internet is a system of ______.

a) Bugs

b) Interconnected networks 

c) System software

d) Operating systems

e) None of the above
Explanation: The Internet is the global system of interconnected computer networks that use the Internet protocol suite (TCP/IP) to link billions of devices worldwide.

Q5. Pascal is:

a) A high-level programming language

b) Named after Blaise Pascal

c) Named after mathematician that facilitates structured programming techniques 

d) All of the above

e) None of the above
Explanation: Pascal is an imperative and procedural programming language, which Nicklaus Wirth designed in 1968–69 and published in 1970, as a small, efficient language intended to encourage good programming practices using structured programming and data structuring.

Q6. Analog computers works on the supply of ___________.

a) Continuous electrical pulses

b) Input of varying voltage

c) Magnetic strength

d) Digital inputs

e) None of the above
Explanation: An analog computer is a form of computer that uses the continuously changeable aspects of physical phenomena such as voltage.

Q7. A step by step procedure used to solve a problem is called a/an:

a) Operating system

b) None of the above

c) Application Program

d) Algorithm 

e) All of the above
Explanation: An algorithm is a self-contained step-by-step set of operations to be performed. Algorithms perform calculation, data processing, and/or automated reasoning tasks.

Q8. Computer mouse is also known as __________.

a) Pointing Device 

b) Scanning Device

c) Sensing Device

d) Moving Device

e) All of the above
(A computer mouse is a pointing device (hand control) that detects two-dimensional motion relative to a surface. This motion is typically translated into the motion of a pointer on a display, which allows a smooth control of the graphical user interface.) 

Q9. What is an Offline device?

a) A device which is not connected to CPU 

b) A device which is connected to CPU

c) A direct access storage device

d) A system software

e) All of the above
Explanation: The terms "online" and "offline" have specific meanings in regard to computer technology in which "online" indicates a state of connectivity, while "offline" indicates a disconnected state. 

Q10. RAM is a part of _________.

a) Internet

b) Keyboard

c) System unit 

d) Monitor

e) None of the above
(The system unit, sometimes called the chassis, is a box-like case housing the electronic components of a computer that are used to process data. System unit components include the processor, memory module, cards, ports, and connectors. Many of the system unit’s components reside on a circuit board called the motherboard. )

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English Quiz for RBI/IBPS exam 2016

Directions(Q.1-5): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below them.

A.There is certainly nothing new in man feeling that his destiny lies among the stars.

B.The age old practice of astrology has always stressed the link between us and the stars.

C.And today, in this modern age of science, even more people are occupied with exploring these    connections.

D.The dream to touch the skies is no longer a mere romantic idea.

E.But a practical economic proposition.

Q1. Which of the sentences should come first in the sequence?

(a) B 

(b) C

(c) A

(d) D

(e) E

Q2. Which of the sentences should come second in the sequence?

(a) C 

(b) D

(c) E

(d) A 

(e) B

Q3. Which of the sentences should come third in the sequence?

(a) D

(b) B

(c) E

(d) C

(e) A

Q4. Which of the sentences should come fourth in the sequence?

(a) D

(b) B

(c) E

(d) C

(e) A

Q5. Which of the sentences should come fifth in the sequence?

(a) D

(b) E 

(c) B

(d) C 

(e) A

Directions (Q.6-10). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is 'No error', the answer is '5'. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

Q6. Two men have been arrested by the police who are believed to be involved in the robbery.

(a) Two men have  

(b) been arrested  

(c) by the police who are believed  

(d) to be involved in the robbery 

(e) No error 

Q7. The price of his car is higher than your car.

(a) The price  

(b) of his car is  

(c) higher  

(d) than your car 

(e) No error

Q8. No sooner the bell rang than the teacher entered the class.

(a) No sooner the bell rang

(b) than the teacher  

(c) entered   

(d) the class

(e) No error

Q9. Panky was happy that Jyoti and his sister was going on the same train next day.

(a) Panky was happy that Jyoti and  

(b) his sister was going  

(c) on the same train

(d) next day 

(e) No error

 Q10. The manager tested the peon to see if he could read English.

(a) The manager tested  

(b) the peon to see  

(c) if he could  

(d) read English

(e) No error

Answers:

Q1.

Ans- a (in this sentence , The theory about Astrology is expressed first time. Hence the first sentence is "B" )

Q2.

Ans- a (In this sentence we are talking about Connections that we have already discussed in Sentence"B". hence "C" is second sentence of this paragraph)

Q3. 

Ans- e (In this sentence, Idea of Stars is being explained further, hence "A" is third sentence of this paragraph)

Q4.

Ans- a (In this sentence "D", new idea of being romantic about stars is expressed,hence "D" is fourth sentence of this paragraph.)

Q5.

Ans- b ( here 'but' signifies that sentence "E" follows the sentence "D".)

Q6. 

Ans- c (here the words "who are' create confusion. It is not clear whether the words are used for the police or for the men who have been arrested. such structures should be avoided. ) 

Q7. 

Ans- d (use 'than that of' in place of 'than your' ) 

Q8.

Ans- a ( use ''no sooner did the bell ring". 'No sooner'is used in two forms "no sooner did" and "no sooner had")

Q9.

Ans- b ( use 'were going' in place of 'was going')

 Q10.

Ans- b (here, 'to see' is redundant. 'tested' and 'to see' means same.)

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